A 36-year-old woman comes to a new primary care provider due to diffuse abdominal pain and poor appetite. The patient has worked as an administrative assistant but recently quit her job "because I always felt uncomfortable. I couldn't get my work done because the pain was bothering me so much." She has difficulty describing the pain in detail and cannot identify any precipitants. Nothing appears to bring relief, although she has felt a little better since leaving her job.
The patient does not use tobacco or alcohol. Family history is noncontributory. Over the past several years, the patient has seen 3 different physicians and had several hospitalizations for similar symptoms; previous workups, including endoscopic studies and an exploratory laparotomy, have revealed no etiology for the pain.
Recent abdominal CT scan and abdominal ultrasound were normal. Physical examination and laboratory tests, including comprehensive metabolic panel, complete blood count, and urinalysis, are within normal limits.
In addition to explaining that serious illness has been ruled out, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Explanation that symptoms are most likely stress-related
B) Psychiatric consultation
C) Regularly scheduled office visits
D) Supportive psychotherapy
E) Symptom-driven follow-up as needed
Correct Answer:
Verified
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