A 45-year-old man comes to the physician for a twisted ankle. It occurred while he was playing basketball, but he cannot recall if he everted or inverted his ankle. He ambulates with difficulty but is able to bear weight in the physician's office as he walks to the examination room. His general health is good and he takes no medications.
On examination, there is limited range of motion of the ankle in all directions. Significant ecchymosis and edema are visible at the lateral aspect of the ankle. There is no tenderness at the posterior edge or tip of either malleoli. There is no pain at the base of his fifth metatarsal, and palpation of the navicular area of his foot does not elicit pain.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluating this patient's injury?
A) Coagulation studies
B) CT of the ankle
C) MRI of the ankle
D) No imaging studies at this time
E) Radiographs of the ankle
Correct Answer:
Verified
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