A 32-year-old man comes to the office due to 3 days of fever, malaise, and cough productive of clear sputum. He has had no nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, sore throat, or chest pain. The patient has a history of mild, intermittent asthma and seasonal allergic rhinitis. He does not use tobacco but drinks alcohol occasionally. His 2-year-old son had fever, cough, and rhinorrhea last week. Temperature is 38.3 C (101 F) , blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, pulse is 92/min, respirations are 20/min, and pulse oximetry is 96% on room air. The oropharynx is normal, and palpation of the neck shows no cervical lymphadenopathy. Lung auscultation reveals crackles at the right lung base and occasional expiratory wheezing. Heart sounds are normal. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Azithromycin only
B) Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
C) Chest x-ray
D) Cold agglutinin test
E) Rapid influenza test
F) Sputum Gram stain and culture
G) Symptomatic treatment with follow-up in 3 days
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q131: A 43-year-old woman with congestive heart failure,
Q132: A 45-year-old woman is evaluated for fatigue
Q133: A 61-year-old man is evaluated for progressive
Q134: A 68-year-old woman comes to the office
Q135: An 18-year-old girl comes to the office
Q137: A 58-year-old man with a 45-pack-year smoking
Q138: An 80-year-old woman is brought to the
Q139: A 38-year-old woman comes to the office
Q140: A 72-year-old woman with poorly controlled type
Q141: A 40-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents