A 56-year-old woman comes to the office with her daughter to discuss knee pain, which has been ongoing for several years. The patient has a high tolerance for pain and has previously refused to see a doctor for her condition. Lately, the pain has been affecting the patient's daily activities, and she spends most of the day sitting in a chair. The knee pain and stiffness are more pronounced on the right side and are worse in the morning but gradually improve by the afternoon. She takes no medications. Review of systems is positive for fatigue. Vital signs are within normal limits. BMI is 31 kg/m2. Lower extremity examination shows that both knees are swollen and tender but more so on the right side. The patient is unable to fully flex or extend the right knee. There is mild, bilateral atrophy of the quadriceps. Radiographs of the knees reveal osteopenia of the distal femur, multiple periarticular erosions, and soft tissue swelling. Which of the following is the best long-term management for the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Antifolate immunosuppressant
B) Knee braces and weight loss
C) Systemic glucocorticoid
D) Total knee replacement
E) Urate-lowering therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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