A 62-year-old man comes to the emergency department for evaluation of weakness. Five hours ago, he experienced abrupt-onset weakness in his left arm and leg. The symptoms improved over the next 30 minutes and he had no associated blurry vision, slurred speech, or facial drooping. However, the patient states he is still not "back to normal." He has never experienced similar symptoms. Medical history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and osteoarthritis. The patient takes no medications. He has a 25-pack-year history but quit smoking 5 years ago. Blood pressure is 160/96 mm Hg and pulse is 69/min and regular. There are no carotid bruits. Neurologic examination shows mild, left-sided pronator drift. The remainder of the neurologic examination is normal. CT scan of the head without contrast shows no hemorrhage or evidence of acute ischemic infarction. CT angiography of the head and neck does not demonstrate a large vessel occlusion. ECG shows sinus rhythm. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Antiplatelet agent
B) Oral anticoagulation
C) Parenteral anticoagulation
D) Parenteral antihypertensive agent
E) Systemic thrombolytic therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q230: A 26-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q231: A 15-year-old girl is brought to the
Q232: A 40-year-old woman is brought to the
Q233: A 3-year-old girl is brought to the
Q234: A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q236: A 63-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q237: A 61-year-old farmer is brought to the
Q238: A 72-year-old woman with a past medical
Q239: A 78-year-old woman is brought to the
Q240: A 20-year-old hockey player is brought to
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents