A 70-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to 3 hours of intense, constant chest and neck pain that radiates to the interscapular area. The patient describes the pain as sharp. He has never experienced this type of pain before. His other medical problems include a 20-year history of hypertension and a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He does not use tobacco or alcohol. The patient appears anxious and uncomfortable. His blood pressure is 189/110 mm Hg in the right arm and 181/112 mm Hg in the left, pulse is 105/min, and respirations are 18/min. Examination shows an early decrescendo diastolic murmur best heard at the left sternal border of the fourth intercostal space. ECG shows sinus tachycardia, voltage criteria for left ventricular hypertrophy, and T-wave inversions in leads V5 and V6. Serum creatinine is 2.1 mg/dL. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Coronary angiography
B) Low-dose aspirin and troponin I levels
C) MR angiography
D) Serum B-type natriuretic peptide levels
E) Transesophageal echocardiography
Correct Answer:
Verified
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