A 54-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after an episode of hematemesis and lightheadedness. He has a history of anemia, intravenous drug use, hepatitis C infection with cirrhosis, and alcohol use. The patient says he has had no alcohol in about 5 days. He takes no medications. His temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 105/60 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 16/min. He has scleral icterus. Examination shows blood in the oropharynx. The lungs are clear to auscultation. The abdomen is distended with a fluid wave. Laboratory results are as follows:
The patient receives normal saline through 2 large-bore intravenous lines and is started on ceftriaxone. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Factor VIIa transfusion
B) Octreotide infusion
C) Packed red blood cell transfusion
D) Platelet transfusion
E) Sengstaken-Blakemore balloon tamponade
Correct Answer:
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