A 15-month-old full-term boy is brought to the clinic for a well-child examination. He has been eating and sleeping well and is meeting all developmental milestones. His day care center had an outbreak of pertussis 6 weeks ago that required it to close for a few days, but the patient has had no cough, nasal congestion, or rhinorrhea. At age 6 months, he had a generalized seizure that lasted approximately 2 minutes within hours of receiving the diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis vaccine. He was taken to the emergency department for observation and discharged later that day. The patient has had no other seizures or medical concerns and takes no medications. His uncle has a history of childhood-onset epilepsy. Vital signs and physical examination are normal. The child is due for the fourth dose of the diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis vaccine. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer the diphtheria and tetanus toxoids; avoid the pertussis component
B) Administer the diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis vaccine as scheduled
C) Administer only the tetanus toxoid at this time
D) Hold all immunizations containing diphtheria, tetanus, or pertussis components
E) Prescribe only postexposure prophylaxis antibiotics
Correct Answer:
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