A 51-year-old woman comes to the office for a follow-up. The patient has hypertension treated with lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, and amlodipine. She also takes paroxetine for hot flashes ever since her menopause at age 50 and says she continues to experience occasional episodes of "hot flashes and anxiety." The patient has been monitoring her blood pressure at home and brings a report with highly variable blood pressure readings. She reports no weight changes, fatigue, chest pain, myalgias, or polyuria. She has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol. Her father died at age 65 from hemorrhagic stroke. Blood pressure is 170/100 in the right arm and 166/94 in the left arm, and pulse is 88/min. BMI is 24 kg/m2. Physical examination is normal. Complete blood count, serum electrolytes, glucose, creatinine, and TSH level are within normal limits. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Discontinue paroxetine
B) Initiate benzodiazepine therapy
C) Obtain 24-hour urinary free cortisol level
D) Obtain plasma metanephrines
E) Obtain renal duplex imaging
F) Obtain sleep study
Correct Answer:
Verified
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