A 15-year-old girl is brought to the office for evaluation of her menstrual periods. The patient underwent menarche at age 12 and initially had irregular, heavy, nonpainful menses. Menses now occur monthly and consist of 4 days of light bleeding. For the past 3 months, the girl has developed malaise and dizziness 2 days prior to her menstrual period and has had associated, continuous lower abdominal pain that radiates to her thighs. Symptoms resolve on the second day of menses. She has no chronic medical conditions and takes no daily medications. The patient is not sexually active. Her last menstrual period was a week ago. Vital signs are normal. The abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended and has no palpable masses. Pelvic examination is deferred. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Copper-containing intrauterine device
B) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
D) Progestin-only pills
E) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
F) Tranexamic acid
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q539: A 23-year-old woman comes to the office
Q540: A 3-year-old boy is brought to the
Q541: A 41-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1,
Q542: A 31-year-old woman comes to the office
Q543: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1,
Q545: A 19-year-old woman comes to the office
Q546: A 32-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 3,
Q547: A 36-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2,
Q548: A 39-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0
Q549: A 25-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents