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A 15-Year-Old Girl Is Brought to the Office for Evaluation

Question 544

Multiple Choice

A 15-year-old girl is brought to the office for evaluation of her menstrual periods.  The patient underwent menarche at age 12 and initially had irregular, heavy, nonpainful menses.  Menses now occur monthly and consist of 4 days of light bleeding.  For the past 3 months, the girl has developed malaise and dizziness 2 days prior to her menstrual period and has had associated, continuous lower abdominal pain that radiates to her thighs.  Symptoms resolve on the second day of menses.  She has no chronic medical conditions and takes no daily medications.  The patient is not sexually active.  Her last menstrual period was a week ago.  Vital signs are normal.  The abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended and has no palpable masses.  Pelvic examination is deferred.  Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?


A) Copper-containing intrauterine device
B) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
D) Progestin-only pills
E) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
F) Tranexamic acid

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