A 38-year-old woman, gravida 5 para 4, at 10 weeks gestation comes to the office for an initial prenatal visit. She feels well and has no concerns. The patient takes prenatal vitamins and has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus that is currently managed with insulin. She has no vaginal bleeding or pelvic pain. The patient reports no urinary urgency, hematuria, or dysuria. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. BMI is 29 kg/m2. The fetal heart rate is 155/min on Doppler ultrasound. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A clean-catch urine culture from today's visit grows >100,000 colony-forming units/mL of Escherichia coli. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A) Amoxicillin-clavulanate
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Doxycycline
D) No additional treatment or workup indicated
E) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Correct Answer:
Verified
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