A 67-year-old man with hypertension comes to the office for follow-up. Despite escalations in his antihypertensive therapy, he has persistently elevated blood pressure readings at home and in the office. The patient has occasional headaches but no chest pain, shortness of breath, or syncope. His other medical conditions include type 2 diabetes mellitus, coronary artery disease, and an ischemic stroke with residual left-sided weakness. The patient underwent coronary artery bypass surgery 7 years ago and carotid endarterectomy 5 years ago. His current antihypertensive regimen includes lisinopril, chlorthalidone, amlodipine, and carvedilol. Blood pressure is 184/120 mm Hg in the left arm and 170/112 mm Hg in the right arm, and pulse is 65/min. Physical examination shows an upper abdominal systolic-diastolic bruit. This finding is best explained by which of the following?
A) Abdominal aortic aneurysm
B) Aortic coarctation
C) Aortic dissection
D) Aortoenteric fistula
E) Renal artery stenosis
Correct Answer:
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