An 80-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her son due to fatigue. She lives alone and suffers from bilateral knee osteoarthritis, which significantly limits her mobility. Her only other medical problem is hypertension. Her medications include lisinopril, chlorthalidone, and prescription naproxen. She also takes low-dose aspirin because it is "good for the heart." Her blood pressure is 146/92 mm Hg and pulse is 78/min. The patient has conjunctival pallor. Both knees are deformed due to bony overgrowth but there is no significant effusion or erythema. Extension of both knees is limited. Her renal function, assessed 2 months ago, was normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of pallor in this patient?
A) Anemia of chronic disease
B) Aplastic anemia
C) Drug-induced hemolysis
D) Hypothyroidism
E) Iron deficiency anemia
F) Vitamin B12 deficiency
Correct Answer:
Verified
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