A 26-year-old woman comes to the office due to progressive tiredness. The patient has no known chronic medical conditions and takes no medications. Her menstrual periods are regular, and bleeding lasts 3 days. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Examination shows no abnormalities. Complete blood count is as follows:
Fecal occult blood test is negative. Iron therapy is initiated. When the patient returns 6 weeks later, her laboratory findings are unchanged. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A) Bone marrow aplasia
B) Bone marrow infiltration
C) Circulating anti-red blood cell antibodies
D) Cobalamin deficiency
E) Erythropoietin deficiency
F) Folic acid deficiency
G) Hemoglobin defect
H) Hereditary red blood cell membrane defect
I) Iron deficiency
J) Red blood cell enzyme deficiency
K) Traumatic hemolysis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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