A 45-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to 3 days of fever, malaise, progressive dyspnea on exertion, dry cough, abdominal pain, and watery diarrhea. Her loose stools this morning were accompanied by bright red blood. The patient underwent allogeneic renal transplantation 6 months ago and is currently taking tacrolimus, mycophenolate, and prednisone. Two months ago, she developed severe leukopenia, which resolved after discontinuing trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and valganciclovir. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 38.9 C (102 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 114/min, and respirations are 22/min. Physical examination shows bilateral lung crackles and diffuse abdominal tenderness. Gross blood is seen on rectal examination. Laboratory results are as follows:
Urinalysis is normal. Chest x-ray reveals bilateral interstitial infiltrates. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current condition?
A) Aspergillus fumigatus
B) Candida albicans
C) Cryptosporidium
D) Cytomegalovirus
E) Influenza
F) Legionella pneumophila
G) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
H) Pneumocystis jirovecii
Correct Answer:
Verified
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