A 28-year-old man comes to the office due to 4 days of urethral discharge and dysuria. The patient had similar symptoms a month ago, and urethral swab Gram stain at that time revealed numerous neutrophils but no organisms. He was treated with a single dose of azithromycin, and his symptoms resolved completely. The patient has no other medical conditions and takes no medications. He drinks alcohol socially and does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. The patient had multiple sexual partners in the past but has been in a monogamous relationship with a female partner for the past 3 months. His partner has no symptoms and takes oral contraceptives. The patient is afebrile. Physical examination shows mucoid discharge from the urethral meatus. Urine dipstick test is positive for leukocyte esterase. Nucleic acid amplification testing is positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. Which of the following is the most likely cause of symptom recurrence in this patient?
A) Inadequate dose of antibiotics
B) Reactivation of a latent infection
C) Reinfection from an untreated sexual partner
D) Treatment failure due to drug resistance
E) Untreated concurrent infection
Correct Answer:
Verified
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