A 50-year-old man with a long history of chronic alcohol use disorder is hospitalized due to nausea, vomiting, and epigastric pain lasting for 2 days. The patient was previously admitted with an episode of alcohol-induced acute pancreatitis. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 102/70 mm Hg, pulse is 106/min, and respirations are 16/min. BMI is 17.5 kg/m2. On physical examination, he appears cachectic. He is alert and oriented. The chest is clear to auscultation. There is epigastric tenderness without rebound. Bowel sounds are present. Neurologic examination is normal. Laboratory results are as follows:
The patient is given thiamine, folic acid, and a multivitamin replacement, followed by 5% dextrose and normal saline with potassium replacement. A few hours later, he reports extreme weakness in all extremities. Deep tendon reflexes are absent. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Acetylcholine receptor antibodies
B) ACTH stimulation test
C) Lumbar puncture
D) MRI of the spine
E) Serum phosphorous level
F) Serum TSH level
Correct Answer:
Verified
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