A 24-year-old woman comes to the clinic due to 4 days of skin rash and pain in her wrists, ankles, and elbows. She also has had a fever but no headache, nausea, or vomiting. The patient has no significant past medical history and does not take medications. She recently went on a weekend vacation with her new boyfriend. The patient has an intrauterine device and does not use condoms. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 38.5 C (101.3 F) and pulse is 98/min. The oropharynx is clear, and there is no thrush or lymphadenopathy. Abdominal and pelvic examinations are normal. The patient has pain along the tendon sheaths with active and passive hand movement. The skin rash is shown in the image below.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
A) Acute HIV infection
B) Acute rheumatic fever
C) Gonococcemia
D) Lyme disease
E) Meningococcemia
F) Syphilis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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