A 55-year-old man comes to the office due to progressive difficulty walking and frequent falls over the past year. Initially the patient had difficulty with balance when walking up and down the stairs. Now he has to brace himself against a wall even when walking on flat surfaces. He has had no urinary incontinence, slurred speech, or headaches. The patient was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension several years ago but is not compliant with medications. He also has a history of long-term, heavy alcohol and tobacco use. Blood pressure is 170/96 mm Hg and pulse is 84/min. The patient is alert and oriented. Bilateral pupils are equal and reactive. Extraocular movements are normal. Muscle bulk, tone, and strength are normal. Proprioception and vibration sensation are normal in the lower extremities. The patient exhibits a wide-based gait and is unable to perform tandem walking. Heel-knee-shin testing is abnormal but finger-nose testing is normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his ambulatory dysfunction?
A) Cerebellar degeneration due to alcohol neurotoxicity
B) Increased cerebrospinal fluid accumulation due to impaired absorption
C) Osteophytes causing progressive spinal cord compression
D) Peripheral nerve ischemia due to small vessel injury
E) Thiamine deficiency-induced thalamic neuronal loss
F) Vascular disease causing multiple minor infarcts
G) Vitamin deficiency-induced spinal cord degeneration
Correct Answer:
Verified
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