A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to right-sided weakness, numbness, and slurred speech. The patient was in his usual state of health last night but awoke this morning with these symptoms. He has a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease. The patient does not drink alcohol regularly but has a 45-pack-year history. Physical examination shows an awake and alert patient with right-sided weakness, hemisensory loss, homonymous hemianopsia, and aphasia. CT scan of the head reveals a large left hemispheric infarction due to an occluded middle cerebral artery. The patient is hospitalized but is not treated with fibrinolytic therapy or mechanical thrombectomy due to ineligibility. Forty-eight hours later, he becomes obtunded. Temperature is 38.3 C (100.9 F) , blood pressure is 154/86 mm Hg, and pulse is 64/min. Physical examination now shows complete right hemiplegia and deviation of the eyes to the left. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Blood cultures and empiric antibiotics
B) Intravenous hypertonic saline and observation
C) Intravenous mannitol and observation
D) MRI of the head
E) Repeat CT scan of the head
Correct Answer:
Verified
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