A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department due to a 1-week history of fever. Her family has also noticed that the patient is "much crankier than normal" and has decreased oral intake. She has had no cough, rhinorrhea, or emesis. She has no medical conditions, takes no daily medications, and has not received age-appropriate vaccines. Temperature is 39.4 C (102.9 F) , blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 135/min. On physical examination, the patient is irritable and has mild facial flushing. Bilateral conjunctivae are injected. A 1.7-cm, tender, mobile anterior cervical lymph node is palpated. Cardiac examination demonstrates a regular rhythm and no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. The trunk and extremities have a blanching maculopapular eruption; the hands and feet are erythematous and edematous. An image of the patient's mouth is shown below.
The posterior pharynx is mildly injected without exudates or tonsillar hypertrophy. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Echocardiogram
B) Oral penicillin therapy
C) Parvovirus serology
D) Reassurance and close follow-up
E) Serum measles IgM antibody
Correct Answer:
Verified
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