A 6-month-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother due to a rash in her diaper area for the past 2 days. The patient has been fussy with diaper changes but otherwise well with no fever, vomiting, or diarrhea. There have been no changes in the type of diapers, soap, or wipes. The patient had thrush twice in the first month of life and acute otitis media a month ago that resolved with a course of antibiotics. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows a well-appearing infant. Mucous membranes are moist and have no lesions. Examination of the labial area is shown in the exhibit.
The remainder of the examination is normal. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A) Prescribe oral antifungal therapy
B) Prescribe topical permethrin
C) Recommend a barrier ointment
D) Send a bacterial culture of the skin lesions
E) Send a viral culture of the skin lesions
Correct Answer:
Verified
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