A 68-year-old woman with a 3-year history of idiopathic Parkinson disease comes to the office with her husband for follow-up. The patient reports adequate control of motor symptoms with levodopa-carbidopa therapy but states that for the past month, she no longer spends time with her friends or participates in her church choir due to difficulty focusing. She sleeps restlessly most nights, resulting in daytime naps, and skips dinner because she is not hungry. Medical history is otherwise noncontributory, and the patient takes no other medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows reduced facial expressions and mild slowing on repeated finger tapping but no significant tremors. Posture and gait are normal. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A) Add a dopamine agonist
B) Prescribe an antidepressant
C) Prescribe an atypical antipsychotic
D) Prescribe a stimulant
E) Reduce the levodopa-carbidopa dose
Correct Answer:
Verified
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