A 35-year-old man comes to the office due to sexual symptoms. The patient has normal libido and erectile function but has uncontrollable orgasm within a minute of vaginal penetration during intercourse. His symptoms started 6 months ago after his wife gave birth to their second child. The patient says his symptoms are distressing and are leading to considerable frustration in his relationship with his wife. Medical history and examination are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's sexual symptoms?
A) Low-dose finasteride
B) Paroxetine therapy
C) Serum prolactin level
D) Serum testosterone level
E) Sildenafil as needed
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q44: A 26-year-old man is brought to the
Q45: An 18-year-old woman is brought to the
Q46: A 16-year-old boy is brought to the
Q47: A 43-year-old man is brought to the
Q48: A 37-year-old man with a history of
Q50: A 63-year-old man is brought to the
Q51: A 25-year-old woman comes to the office
Q52: A 19-year-old woman is brought to the
Q53: A 37-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q54: A 22-year-old woman comes to student health
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents