A 75-year-old man is brought to the office by his wife due to worsening psychosis. The patient has a history of Parkinson disease treated with carbidopa-levodopa and pramipexole. Dosages of both medications were increased 6 months ago to target worsening tremor and bradykinesia, resulting in significant improvement in motor symptoms. However, over the ensuing months, the patient began experiencing paranoia and hallucinations. He has been verbally assaultive toward the mail carrier, claiming that she is stealing from him. The patient has also been observed talking to himself and is often distracted by visual stimuli that are invisible to others. Dose reduction of his antiparkinson medications resulted in significant rebound motor symptoms, requiring resumption of the prereduction doses. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 118/82 mm Hg, and pulse is 62/min. The patient appears suspicious of the examiner and mumbles to himself throughout the examination. Mild rigidity, tremor, and gait instability are present. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Amantadine
B) Haloperidol
C) Quetiapine
D) Risperidone
E) Selegiline
Correct Answer:
Verified
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