A 38-year-old woman comes to the office due to anxiety and poor sleep. A week ago, the patient went on a family hiking trip, which ended when her brother slipped and fell 30 ft down the mountainside. Although his condition is now stable and improving, the patient worries about his recovery and awakens multiple times a night in a profuse sweat. She is unable to take naps because she feels "too wound up." The patient tearfully says, "I keep reliving the moment he fell, and I can't block it out." Medical history is noncontributory. She has started drinking 3 glasses of wine at bedtime to "calm down" but does not use recreational drugs. Vital signs and physical examination are within normal limits. On mental status examination, the patient appears tense and nervously taps her foot; she describes her mood as "numb." Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
A) Alprazolam
B) Buspirone
C) Cognitive-behavioral therapy
D) Escitalopram
E) Reassurance only
Correct Answer:
Verified
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