A 32-year-old woman with bipolar disorder comes to the office for follow-up. The patient was diagnosed and treated for a manic episode at age 29 and has been stable on a combination of lithium and risperidone. Her mood has been "fine" overall, but she has been stressed about work. After a staff meeting a few weeks ago, her supervisor said she appeared angry because she was repeatedly frowning while others were presenting. Since then, the patient has been increasingly self-conscious and has started eating lunch alone at her desk. Temperature is 37.0 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 132/78 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination is unremarkable except for occasional grimacing and slow inversion and tapping movements of her right foot. Lithium level is 0.9 mEq/L (normal: 0.6-1.2) . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacological management?
A) Add benztropine as needed
B) Add daily propranolol
C) Discontinue lithium and start valproic acid
D) Maintain current regimen
E) Prescribe fluoxetine
F) Taper and discontinue risperidone
Correct Answer:
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