A 61-year-old woman comes to the office due to 3 months of constipation and pain in the left lower abdomen. The pain is crampy, continuous, and nonradiating and is not affected by bowel movements or meals. The patient reports hard, pelletlike stools and early satiety but no vomiting, hematochezia, melena, or weight changes. The patient does not have a history of chronic constipation. She is postmenopausal and has not had a period in >5 years. Medical history is significant for hypertension. Family history is unremarkable, and the patient does not use tobacco or alcohol. Temperature is 37.5 C (99.5 F) , blood pressure is 145/87 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 12/min. No scleral icterus or palpable lymphadenopathy is present. Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. The abdomen is mildly distended and tender to palpation in the left lower quadrant without rebound or guarding. Rectal examination is unremarkable and negative for fecal occult blood. Colonoscopy results are unremarkable. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A) Abdominal x-ray
B) Barium enema
C) Biofeedback therapy
D) Fiber supplementation
E) Pelvic floor muscle exercises
F) Pelvic ultrasound
Correct Answer:
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