A 37-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend for severe abdominal pain that started several hours ago. The pain started diffusely in the periumbilical area but is now mostly localized to the lower abdomen. The patient has persistent nausea but no vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 25 days ago, but she has irregular periods. She is sexually active with her boyfriend. Her temperature is 36.8 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 25/min. The abdomen, especially in the lower quadrants, is tender on palpation with mild guarding. There is no shifting dullness. Bowel sounds are diminished. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Abdominal CT scan
B) Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
C) Pelvic ultrasound
D) Pregnancy test
E) Upright chest x-ray
Correct Answer:
Verified
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