A 42-year-old woman comes to the office due to diarrhea. She has had 3 watery bowel movements daily for the past 7 months as well as mild, crampy abdominal pain that improves after defecation. The patient has no hematochezia, melena, or weight loss. Medical history and family history are both unremarkable. She has not traveled outside the United States. Temperature is 37.3 C (99.1 F) , blood pressure is 120/78 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 12/min. Physical examination shows moist mucous membranes and anicteric sclera. Heart and lung sounds are normal. The abdomen is mildly tender to palpation but nondistended. Laboratory results are as follows:
A colonoscopy reveals mild erythema and small, shallow ulcers in the rectum and sigmoid colon. Which of the following would be the best next step in management?
A) Gluten-free diet
B) Mesalamine enema
C) Metronidazole plus paromomycin
D) Total proctocolectomy with ileoanal anastomosis
E) Tumor necrosis factor-alpha inhibitor
Correct Answer:
Verified
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