A 42-year-old woman comes to the office due to bloody discharge from her right nipple. She has had no breast pain, swelling, or trauma but stopped breastfeeding 3 months ago. She has never had mammography. The patient has no chronic medical conditions. Vital signs are normal. Examination reveals symmetric pendulous breasts without any ulceration, crusting, or scaling of the nipple-areolar complexes. Manual pressure elicits bloody discharge from a single duct of the right nipple. A firm, ill-defined, 2-cm mass is palpable in the lower outer quadrant of the right breast with retraction of the overlying skin. The left breast is normal to palpation, and no axillary or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy is present bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Breast abscess
B) Galactocele
C) Intraductal papilloma
D) Invasive ductal carcinoma
E) Mammary duct ectasia
Correct Answer:
Verified
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