A 19-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to lower abdominal pain. The pain is intermittent and started this morning during a yoga class. The patient has also vomited twice. She has no chronic medical conditions and takes no daily medications. She is sexually active and uses a copper-containing intrauterine device for contraception. The patient's last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 104/min. Abdominal examination shows diffuse lower abdominal tenderness, left greater than right, with no rebound or guarding. Pelvic ultrasound reveals a complex left adnexal mass with absent Doppler flow. There is a moderate amount of free fluid in the posterior cul-de-sac of the pelvis. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) CA-125 testing
B) CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
C) Culdocentesis
D) Laparoscopy
E) Methotrexate
F) Needle aspiration of the mass
G) NSAIDs and observation
Correct Answer:
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