A 36-year-old woman comes to the office for a postoperative visit due to incisional pain. A week ago, the patient had an abdominal hysterectomy for heavy menstrual bleeding, and intraoperative blood loss was 500 mL. After surgery, heparin was administered for venous thromboembolism prophylaxis and discontinued when she started ambulating. Since leaving the hospital, the patient has had incisional pain and light vaginal bleeding. In addition, she has a pulling sensation to the left of her incision that worsens when she bends over and when she strains to have a bowel movement. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 134/78 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min. BMI is 34 kg/m2. The abdomen is soft and there are normoactive bowel sounds. The low, horizontal abdominal incision is closed with staples, and the skin edges are intact. There is mild incisional induration but no erythema, drainage, or fluctuance. The incision is diffusely tender to deep palpation, and no palpable masses or defects are present. Hemoglobin is 9 g/dL and leukocytes are 10,000/mm3. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
B) Incisional exploration and packing
C) Observation and reassurance
D) Oral antibiotic therapy
E) Pelvic ultrasound
Correct Answer:
Verified
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