A 68-year-old woman comes to the office due to a groin bulge. She first noticed it 2 months ago and says that it gets larger with prolonged standing and shrinks with lying down, but it is not painful. There has been no trauma to the area. The patient has had no fever, nausea, anorexia, weight loss, abdominal pain, or urinary symptoms. She has a history of obstructive pulmonary disease with occasional exacerbations and hypertension. The patient has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 45 years. Temperature is 36.9 C (98.4 F) , blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg, pulse is 78/min, and respirations are 16/min. BMI is 34 kg/m2. Oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. Cardiopulmonary examination shows mildly decreased breath sounds bilaterally. The abdomen is soft and nontender; bowel sounds are normal. There is a 2-cm groin mass below the right inguinal ligament, which is medial to the right femoral artery; no tenderness, pulsations, or overlying erythema is present. The mass is tympanitic to percussion. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) CT angiogram of the lower extremities
B) Elective surgical repair
C) Needle aspiration of the mass
D) Oral antibiotics and reevaluation in 2 weeks
E) Reassurance and observation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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