A 50-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to abdominal pain. For 3 days, she had lower abdominal cramping and frequent watery diarrhea, but over the past 24 hours, the pain has progressively worsened; she has also had a fever. The patient has no chronic medical conditions but recently finished a course of ciprofloxacin for pyelonephritis. Temperature is 38.9 C (102 F) , blood pressure is 110/68 mm Hg, and pulse is 118/min. Abdominal examination shows lower abdominal tenderness without guarding or rigidity. Abdominal CT scan reveals colonic wall edema without perforation. The patient is admitted to the hospital and treated with intravenous fluids and oral vancomycin. Stool toxin assay is positive for Clostridioides (formerly Clostridium) difficile. Two days later, the diarrhea has decreased, but the abdominal pain is worsening. Examination shows an absence of bowel sounds; the abdomen is distended and diffusely tender to both palpation and release of palpation pressure. Abdominal x-ray reveals dilation of the transverse and descending colon to 10 cm. Serum lactate is 6 mmol/L (normal: <2) . Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A) Colonoscopic decompression
B) Fecal transplantation
C) Intravenous corticosteroids
D) Laparotomy
E) Trial of neostigmine
Correct Answer:
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