A 45-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to 3 weeks of fever, malaise, and cough productive of foul-smelling, purulent sputum. Six weeks ago, the patient was hospitalized after sustaining a head injury during a motor vehicle collision; he briefly required intubation and was discharged from the hospital 4 weeks ago. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 39.1 C (102.3 F) , blood pressure is 120/74 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 14/min. Laboratory studies reveal a hemoglobin of 12.5 g/dL and leukocyte count of 18,000/mm3. X-ray of the chest is shown in the exhibit.
Sputum cultures are obtained. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Ampicillin-sulbactam empiric therapy
B) Bronchoscopy and biopsy
C) Metronidazole empiric therapy
D) Observation until culture results are available
E) Surgical resection
Correct Answer:
Verified
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