A 67-year-old woman comes to the office due to knee pain. For the past year, she has had gradually increasing pain in the left knee that is worse with prolonged walking or climbing stairs. The patient has also had brief (5-10 min) stiffness in the knee when she first rises from bed in the morning. She reports minimal pain at rest and no nocturnal pain. There are no clicking or locking symptoms. Her pain is relieved with topical diclofenac but recurs if the patient does not use it regularly. Vital signs are normal. Examination shows slightly reduced flexion at the left knee compared to the right. No joint tenderness, warmth, or palpable effusion is present. There is no laxity with varus or valgus stress or with anterior or posterior traction on the proximal tibia. X-ray of the knee is shown in the image below:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's knee pain?
A) Arthroscopic lavage and debridement
B) Hyaluronic acid injection
C) MRI of the knee
D) Quadriceps strengthening exercises
E) Rheumatoid factor assay
Correct Answer:
Verified
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