A 21-year-old soldier comes to the medical clinic due to right foot pain. She is in her second month of basic training and has had pain for the last 3 weeks. The patient has no history of acute trauma. The pain initially occurred only with activity but is now present even at rest. Medical history is unremarkable, and she takes no medications. Vital signs are normal. Examination shows swelling and warmth in the foot and point tenderness over the second metatarsal. Plain films of the foot show a hairline fracture of the shaft of the second metatarsal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Bone scan
B) MRI of the foot
C) Plaster cast
D) Rest and analgesics
E) Surgical intervention
Correct Answer:
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