A 45-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of irregular menstrual bleeding. For the past 8 months, the patient has had some intermenstrual spotting. The bleeding initially occurred for 1-2 days between menstrual cycles but now has become progressively prolonged and heavy, and she now bleeds almost daily. The patient previously used a progestin-releasing intrauterine device for contraception, but had it removed 2 years ago when her husband had a vasectomy. She takes no daily medications and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 38 kg/m2. Bimanual examination shows no abnormalities. On speculum examination, dark-red blood is seen at the cervical os. There are no cervical or vaginal lesions. An endometrial biopsy reveals endometrial hyperplasia. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A) Chronic polymicrobial infection within the endometrial cavity
B) Continuous exposure to exogenous progesterone
C) Distortion of the endometrial cavity by myocyte proliferation
D) Ectopic implantation of endometrial glands
E) Invasion of endometrial tissue into the myometrium
F) Peripheral aromatization of androgens to estrone
Correct Answer:
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