A 29-year-old woman comes to the office for a colposcopy after a cervical cancer screening last week revealed abnormal intraepithelial lesions. The patient feels well and has had no abnormal vaginal bleeding or discharge. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no prior surgery. The patient's only medication is an oral contraceptive. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. BMI is 23 kg/m2. On colposcopy, the squamocolumnar junction is not completely visualized, and an ectocervical biopsy reveals cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 1. An endocervical curettage shows CIN 3. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Cervical conization
B) Endometrial biopsy
C) Repeat Pap and human papillomavirus cotesting in 3 months
D) Routine Pap testing in 3 years
E) Topical trichloroacetic acid
Correct Answer:
Verified
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