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A 44-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Office with a 6-Month

Question 90

Multiple Choice

A 44-year-old woman comes to the office with a 6-month history of painful sexual intercourse.  She has no associated itching or abnormal vaginal discharge.  The patient has never had these symptoms before and has had no problems with sexual desire or orgasm.  She has been monogamous with her husband for 15 years.  The patient's menstrual periods are regular and are not associated with unusual pain.  She has no urinary or gastrointestinal symptoms.  Her medical history is notable for mild hypertension that has been well controlled with dietary changes and exercise.  The patient has no history of pelvic inflammatory disease or gynecologic surgery.  Her only medications include a daily multivitamin and saline eye drops for chronic dry eyes.  The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.  Temperature is 36.5 C (97.7 F) , blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 12/min.  The neck is supple.  The patient has mild dental caries.  Chest auscultation reveals no abnormalities.  The abdomen is soft and nontender.  Pelvic examination shows normal-appearing external genitalia and dry vaginal mucosa.  The uterus and adnexa are normal with no cervical motion tenderness.  Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current condition?


A) Endometriosis
B) Estrogen deficiency
C) Inadequate lubrication
D) Interstitial cystitis
E) Lichen sclerosus
F) Vaginismus
G) Vulvodynia

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