A 39-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 34 weeks gestation comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit. She has good fetal movement and some lower abdominal pressure. Other than a cough and nasal congestion during the first trimester, the patient has had an uneventful pregnancy. Her first trimester screening and fetal anatomy ultrasound were both normal. She was diagnosed with hypertension 5 years ago for which she takes labetalol. The patient drinks 2 cups of coffee daily but does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She is a nurse in the neonatal intensive care unit and plans to work until her due date. Blood pressure is 142/82 mm Hg and fundal height is 30 cm. Ultrasound reveals a biparietal diameter consistent with 32 weeks and abdominal circumference consistent with 27 weeks gestation. A normal amount of amniotic fluid and a posterior placenta are present. Estimated fetal weight is at the 8th percentile for gestational age. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this fetus' condition?
A) Advanced maternal age
B) Caffeine consumption
C) Congenital infection
D) Hypertension
E) Trisomy 21
Correct Answer:
Verified
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