A 28-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 0 abortus 1, at 32 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department because she has not felt her baby move for the past few hours. This pregnancy has been complicated by placenta previa, but she has had no contractions, vaginal bleeding, or leakage of fluid. The patient's other prenatal testing was normal. With her first pregnancy, she had a spontaneous abortion at 8 weeks gestation that required dilation and curettage. The patient's only medical condition is asthma, for which she uses corticosteroid and bronchodilator inhalers. On physical examination, fetal heart tones are not heard with a Doppler device. Transabdominal ultrasound is performed and reveals no fetal cardiac activity, a finding consistent with intrauterine fetal demise. The patient asks how this could have happened to her baby. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
A) "Because of your prior miscarriage, this is likely due to a chromosomal abnormality."
B) "The most common reason is an underlying infection inside the uterus, which could not have been prevented."
C) "This can sometimes occur as a complication of long-term use of your asthma medications."
D) "Unfortunately, this is likely a complication of your placenta previa."
E) "We can order further tests on the baby, but, sadly, we may not ever know the cause."
Correct Answer:
Verified
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