A 37-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 0 aborta 1, at 8 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department due to 2 days of light vaginal spotting and mild abdominal cramping. She has not passed large clots or had heavy bleeding. The patient has infertility issues and this pregnancy resulted from an ovulation induction. Her only prior pregnancy was an ectopic pregnancy 10 years ago that was treated with methotrexate. She has no other medical conditions. The patient takes a daily prenatal vitamin and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 116/64 mm Hg and pulse is 76/min. BMI is 26 kg/m2. Speculum examination shows a closed cervix and scant blood in the vagina. Bimanual examination reveals a 10-week-sized nontender uterus and no adnexal masses or tenderness. Two 8-week intrauterine gestations with normal heartbeats are seen on ultrasound. There is a single placenta and no dividing intertwin membrane. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Dichorionic diamniotic twins
B) Heterotopic pregnancy
C) Inevitable abortion
D) Monochorionic diamniotic twins
E) Monochorionic monoamniotic twins
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q324: A 33-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q325: A 25-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q326: A 29-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q327: A 31-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q328: A 41-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q330: A 37-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q331: A 39-year-old primigravid woman at 7 weeks
Q332: A 23-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q333: A 28-year-old primigravida was admitted to the
Q334: A 19-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents