A 33-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 0 aborta 2, at 28 weeks gestation comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit. The patient has had no contractions, vaginal bleeding, or leakage of fluid. Fetal movement is normal. Her pregnancy is complicated by type 1 diabetes mellitus that has become increasingly difficult to control with her insulin regimen. During the past month, most of the patient's postprandial blood glucose levels have been above 200 mg/dL. An anatomy ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation was normal; a follow-up growth ultrasound at 24 weeks gestation was at the 30th percentile. Blood pressure is 124/82 mm Hg and pulse is 88/min. Fundal height is 24 cm. Nonstress test is reactive and reassuring. Ultrasound reveals a cephalic fetus measuring at the 4th percentile for gestational age and an amniotic fluid index of 3 cm (normal: >5 cm) . Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A) Cervical nucleic acid amplification testing
B) Fetal aneuploidy testing
C) Fetal fibronectin testing
D) Repeat ultrasound in 2 weeks
E) Umbilical artery Doppler ultrasound
Correct Answer:
Verified
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