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A 33-Year-Old Woman, Gravida 3 Para 0 Aborta 2, at 28

Question 360

Multiple Choice

A 33-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 0 aborta 2, at 28 weeks gestation comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit.  The patient has had no contractions, vaginal bleeding, or leakage of fluid.  Fetal movement is normal.  Her pregnancy is complicated by type 1 diabetes mellitus that has become increasingly difficult to control with her insulin regimen.  During the past month, most of the patient's postprandial blood glucose levels have been above 200 mg/dL.  An anatomy ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation was normal; a follow-up growth ultrasound at 24 weeks gestation was at the 30th percentile.  Blood pressure is 124/82 mm Hg and pulse is 88/min.  Fundal height is 24 cm.  Nonstress test is reactive and reassuring.  Ultrasound reveals a cephalic fetus measuring at the 4th percentile for gestational age and an amniotic fluid index of 3 cm (normal: >5 cm) .  Which of the following is the best next step in management?


A) Cervical nucleic acid amplification testing
B) Fetal aneuploidy testing
C) Fetal fibronectin testing
D) Repeat ultrasound in 2 weeks
E) Umbilical artery Doppler ultrasound

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