A 24-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit. The patient is at 37 weeks gestation based on her last menstrual period and first-trimester ultrasound. She has some irregular contractions but has had no vaginal bleeding or leakage of fluid. Fetal movement is normal. This pregnancy has been uncomplicated, and her last pregnancy ended with a term spontaneous vaginal delivery to a 4 kg (8 lb 8 oz) boy. The patient would like to have a vaginal delivery with this pregnancy. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no previous surgeries. Vital signs are normal. Fetal heart tones are 135/min. Fundal height is 37 cm. Digital cervical examination reveals a closed cervix and an unengaged fetal presenting part. Ultrasonography shows a fundal placenta, a single deepest vertical pocket of amniotic fluid of 3 cm, and a fetus in incomplete breech presentation. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Continue routine prenatal care only
B) Induce breech vaginal delivery at 40 weeks gestation
C) Perform an external cephalic version
D) Recommend an internal podalic version
E) Schedule a cesarean delivery at 39 weeks gestation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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