A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2, is in the postpartum unit after an uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal delivery with involuntary dribbling of small amounts of urine. It has been 6 hours since the delivery and the patient has been unable to empty her bladder. During labor, she received epidural anesthesia for severe pain with contractions and her bladder was intermittently catheterized. The patient has no chronic medical conditions, takes no medications, and has no known allergies. Vital signs are normal. Examination shows a firm uterine fundus palpable at the umbilicus and fullness and tenderness above the pubic symphysis. The perineum and vagina are edematous but without lacerations. Sensation is intact in the lower extremities, but the patient is unable to void a measurable amount. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Antibiotic therapy
B) Observation and reassurance only
C) Oxybutynin therapy
D) Pessary placement
E) Suprapubic catheterization
F) Urethral catheterization
Correct Answer:
Verified
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