A 33-year-old, previously healthy woman is brought to the emergency department in severe respiratory distress. The patient's shortness of breath began abruptly 2 days ago and has progressively worsened. Over the past 6 months she has had loss of appetite, loose stools, and lightheadedness. Temperature is 38.6 C (101.5 F) , blood pressure is 178/102 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, and respirations are 38/min. Pulse oximetry is 86% on nonrebreather mask. Examination shows marked respiratory distress with intercostal and supraclavicular retractions. The skin is diaphoretic and warm. Cardiopulmonary examination reveals diffuse rales, an S3, and a 2/6 systolic ejection murmur over the left sternal border. The extremities have 1+ pitting edema bilaterally. The patient is placed on positive airway pressure ventilation with improvement in oxygen saturation to 94%. ECG shows sinus tachycardia. Chest x-ray reveals a mildly enlarged cardiac silhouette with pulmonary vascular congestion. Echocardiography shows pulmonary hypertension, left atrial enlargement, and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 75%; there are no wall motion abnormalities. Troponin I is 0.06 ng/mL (normal: <0.04 ng/mL) . Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic step in management of this patient?
A) Antinuclear antibodies
B) Coronary angiography
C) CT pulmonary angiography
D) Serum TSH
E) Viral antibody titers
Correct Answer:
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