A 29-year-old man comes to the physician with nodules under his arm. He reports a 6-month history of slowly enlarging nodules in his right axilla associated with mild discomfort. He has a history of chronic obesity but is otherwise healthy. The patient has a 10-pack-year smoking history and does not drink alcohol. Skin examination shows swollen, nodular lesions in his right axilla with moderate scarring and mild tenderness to palpation. He has no other significant skin lesions.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Incision and drainage
B) Oral doxycycline
C) Surgical excision
D) Topical nystatin powder
E) Warm compresses
Correct Answer:
Verified
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