A 65-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of a rash. The rash started nearly 3 years ago as a single lesion on her back, followed by multiple additional lesions in the same area and elsewhere on her trunk. There is no associated pruritus. The patient has a history of hypertension and gastroesophageal reflux disease. Her medications include hydrochlorothiazide and omeprazole. She has no history of tobacco or alcohol use. Vital signs are within normal limits. Skin examination findings are shown in the image below. There is no warmth or tenderness around the lesions. The remainder of her physical examination is normal.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Cryotherapy
B) Excisional biopsy
C) Intralesional biopsy
D) Reassurance
E) Salicylic acid application
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q181: A 58-year-old male presents to your clinic
Q182: A 49-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q183: A 72-year-old Caucasian male comes to your
Q184: A 23-year old Caucasian primipara gives birth to
Q185: A 65-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q187: A 48-year-old woman comes to the office
Q188: A 7-year-old girl is brought to the
Q189: A 26-year-old woman comes to see you
Q190: A 10-year-old girl is brought to the
Q191: A 25-year-old college student comes to the
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents